Did Jesus preexist before he was born?

A biblical analysis of John 3:13 & John 6:40-42

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Article outline:

INTRODUCTION

It has been said that Jesus Christ existed before he was even born!

Did you exist before you were born?

If so, how can that be?!

One of the verses people use to justify this belief is John 3:13.

John 3 [kjv]
12 If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe, if I tell you of heavenly things?
13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:

In order to rightly divide the word of God, we must ask 2 critical questions:

Do we have the correct translation of the biblical text?

Do we have a complete and accurate understanding of the verse or verses in question?

Let's handle the issue of translation first.

Several biblical manuscripts, such as:

The famous NA28 [Nestle-Aland Greek NT, version #28] critical Greek text
Wescott & Hort critical Greek text
Mounce reverse interlinear critical Greek text
The RSV [Revised Standard Version - a more accurate version than the KJV]
other unspecified manuscripts

do not have the last phrase "which is in heaven", so there is significant doubt as to its authenticity.

Thus, if that phrase was not in the original text, problem solved.

If it was in the original text, then it can be understood in light of the following principles:

The bible was perfect as it was originally written and therefore cannot contain any contradictions, errors, etc. A subset of this is that all verses on the same subject cannot contradict themselves either.

Thus, if these verses in John 3 are to be understood as saying that Jesus existed before he was born, then that is a direct contradiction to Matthew 1:18 and the 3 felony forgery articles referenced below which provides irrefutable evidence from multiple objective authorities of those forgeries.

The preexistence of Jesus is based upon the felony forgery of Revelation 1:8 & 11!

The false reasoning in the felony forgery of Revelation 1:8 & 11 is that since Jesus Christ is the Lord ~~God~~ almighty, the Alpha and Omega, the beginning and ending, then he preexisted way back in the beginning with God himself, eons before his birth.

Revelation 1:8
I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord ~~God~~, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

As irrefutably proven in the article, all of the most ancient biblical manuscripts contain the word "God" [in strikethrough text], which was deliberately deleted from the word of God many many centuries after the entire bible was already written!

Here is an excerpt from the felony forgery article:

Definition of excerpt:
noun
a passage or quotation taken or selected from a book, document, film, or the like; extract.

Matthew 1
1 The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham.
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.

In verse 18 of Matthew 1, the definition of the word "birth" is the whole key to the correct understanding Revelation 1:8.

Greek lexicon of Matthew 1:18 Go to the Strong's column, link #1078

Definition of birth
Strong's Concordance #1078
genesis: origin, birth
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Phonetic Spelling: (ghen'-es-is)
Definition: birth, lineage, descent.

NAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Origin
from ginomai
Definition
origin, birth
NASB Translation

Strong's Exhaustive Concordance
origin, birth, genealogy

Definition of Genesis in an english dictionary:
noun, plural geneses [jen-uh-seez]
1. an origin, creation, or beginning.

Matthew 1:18 records Jesus' birth, which is his origin, his genesis, his beginning, the very first time he ever existed.

Astronomy, history, and scripture all converge on Wednesday, September 11, 3BC, between the hours of 6:18pm – 7:39pm Palestine time as the year, date and time of Jesus Christ's birth.

That is why Revelation 1:8 cannot be referring to Jesus as the alpha and omega, the beginning and ending.

Therefore, God the creator has to be the alpha and omega.

My article on the felony forgery of Revelation 1:8 & 11 also links to another article called the crucifixion of Jesus Christ - [wait until you find out how many were crucified and that God never forsook Jesus on the cross!]

Here is an excerpt from that article:

John 17:5
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

So how could Jesus Christ have been with the father before the world was made?

I Peter 1:19-20 has the answer.
19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:
20 Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you,

Greek Lexicon of I Peter 1:19-20 [click on link #4267 in the Strong's column]

Greek concordance of foreordained
Strong's Concordance #4267
proginosko: to know beforehand
Part of Speech: Verb
Phonetic Spelling: (prog-in-oce'-ko)
Definition: I know beforehand, foreknow.

HELPS Word-studies
4267 proginosko (from 4253 /pro, "before" and 1097 /ginosko, "to know") - properly, foreknow; used in the NT of "God pre-knowing all choices - and doing so without pre-determining (requiring) them" (G. Archer).
[See also Jer 18:8-10 on the perfect harmony of divine sovereignty and human freedom.]

Jesus Christ was not born until September 11, 3BC, but God, in his foreknowledge, knew Jesus Christ would be born then. Jesus Christ had glory even before the world was made because knowledge of his first coming was written in the stars. [Genesis 1:14; Psalms 19]

Romans 8
29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [Strong's #4267] to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

Ephesians 1
4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,

Those of us who have chosen to become a son of God had a preexistence also, but again, ONLY IN GOD'S FOREKNOWLEDGE.

So this article on the felony forgery of Revelation 1:8 & 11 totally destroys the false doctrine of devils that Jesus somehow preexisted with God in the beginning [except in his foreknowledge].

The preexistence of Jesus is based on the felony forgery of Ephesians 3:9!

The false logic of the felony forgery of Ephesians 3:9 is that since Jesus somehow helped God create the universe, Jesus had to have preexisted before his birth.

Ephesians 3:9
And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things ~~by Jesus Christ~~

As irrefutably proven in the article, none of the most ancient biblical manuscripts contain the phrase "by Jesus Christ". It was deliberately added to the bible many many centuries after it was written.

Notes on Genesis 1:26 - "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness"

If Jesus Christ already existed in Genesis 1:26:

How come there are so many prophesies about his first coming in the old testament?
How come Matthew 1:18 says his birth [September 11, 3 BC] was his origin?
How come there are no records in the old testament of anybody ever casting devil spirits out of people using the name of Jesus Christ?
In Job 9:33, how come Job asked God for a daysman [mediator], if he already existed? [I Timothy 2:5 says Jesus Christ is a mediator]
How could Jesus Christ have existed thousands of years before the birth of his own grandmother?
Jesus is called a man 44 times in the bible, but if he existed in the beginning with God, then how could he have existed before the first man Adam was made?
If Jesus Christ was alive before Adam, then how come he's called the last Adam and not the first? [I Corinthians 15:45]
If Jesus Christ was alive in the beginning with God, then how could Jesus exist before God even created soul life and the gift of holy spirit?

These are just a few of the many irreconcilable difficulties if Jesus Christ existed way back in Genesis 1:26.

So once again, the devilish doctrine of the preexistence of Jesus before his birth has been totally annihilated by the word of God.

The preexistence of Jesus is based on the felony forgery of Exodus 3:14 with the misunderstanding of John 8:58!

The false logic of the felony forgery of Exodus 3:14 in conjunction with the misunderstanding of John 8:58 is that Jesus is the great I AM in Exodus 3:14 and therefore, he preexisted with God in the beginning.

Exodus 3
13 And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them?
14 And God said unto Moses, I Am That I Am: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I Am hath sent me unto you.
15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, the Lord God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

John 8
57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?
58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

In a nutshell, there are 4 ancient biblical manuscripts that are all in agreement that the text of the KJV of Exodus 3:14 was translated very wrong and 3 additional reference works are in harmony with this also.

Plus, 99.99% of christians out there have not been taught and/or never studied the 2 critical figures of speech in John 8:58!

What do all 3 articles have in common?

They all irrefutably prove the existence of 3 felony forgeries in the bible that try to prove the pre-existence of Jesus before he was even born!

BTW Forgery is a felony crime and all forgeries also automatically include a second felony called fraud, which is the deliberate intent to deceive. Thus, the devil has inspired various people over a span of well over a thousand years or more to commit 6 felony spiritual crimes against God.

Sheer logic says the greatest crime of forgery and fraud ever committed was against the greatest document ever written, the bible, the revealed word and will of God.

Something is drastically wrong here...

If any entity commits 6 felony crimes [of the highest order no less!], in order to prove their point, then their point was invalid to begin with.

Now back to Jesus' pre-existence, also known as or related to the Jehovah Jesus theory.

In a nutshell, the only way Jesus could have existed before his birth is in God's foreknowledge, [explained in great detail in the 3 articles referenced above].

THESE FIGURES OF SPEECH ARE CRITICAL TO THE CORRECT UNDERSTANDING OF JOHN 3:13!

Now to break down the verses in John 3 so that we can understand them and what's going on here.

The answer lies in figures of speech [a grammatical science], which are a deliberate departure away from the standard rules of grammar in order to draw our attention to specific words and/or concepts in the word of God. In other words, their purpose is to demonstrate the most immportant points of the bible.

This information is from E.W. Bullinger's figures of speech used in the bible.

The first is called Polyptoton, which literally means many inflections and it refers to the repetition of the same part of speech, but in different inflections.

Here is the definition of inflection:

(grammar) a change in the form of a word, usually modification or affixation, signalling change in such grammatical functions as tense, voice, mood, person, gender, number, or case.

We'll get back to this in a bit.

Proverbs 30:4
Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son's name, if thou canst tell?

At the time the book of proverbs was written, since Jesus Christ's birth was still several hundred years in the future, the answer to the first question is nobody!

No human being has ever ascended into heaven with their own power or abilities, so the claim that Mohammed [also spelled Muhammed] leaped up into heaven is false.

John 3 [kjv]
12 If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe, if I tell you of heavenly things?
13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:

Thus Jesus Christ is the only person in the history of mankind to ever be resurrected solely by the power of God. Furthermore, he also received a spiritual body, something no human has ever had before either.

This is one of the many infallible proofs mentioned in the book of Acts:

Acts 1:3
To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God:

Romans 1
3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:

"he that came down from heaven" - this simply means that Jesus Christ had God as his father who is in heaven.

Since nobody else in history has ever ascended up into heaven under their own power, then Jesus Christ could not have been born in heaven for 3 reasons: God never ascended Jesus as a baby; Mary, the mother of Jesus, would have had to have been ascended too; the bible records his birth on earth in the gospels.

The way Mary got pregnant was by divine conception where God created a perfect sperm with perfect sinless and uncorrupted blood so that Jesus Christ could be the perfect lamb without spot or blemish and redeem mankind who is imperfect.

Now back to the first figure of speech Polyptoton.

The noun "heaven" is in 3 different tenses, the last occurrence [again assuming it was in the original text] is in the perfect tense which refers to a completed action that has lasting results. This aspect often reflects a state resulting from past action.

The life and ministry of Jesus Christ was and is so great that it literally has a global effect for all eternity.

Thus the correct translation of the last phrase "which is in heaven" is: "which was in heaven", mentioned for the second time, emphasizing the certainty of Jesus being from God in heaven.

James 3
14 But if ye have bitter envying and strife in your hearts, glory not, and lie not against the truth.
15 This wisdom descendeth not from above, but is earthly, sensual, devilish.
16 For where envying and strife is, there is confusion and every evil work.
17 But the wisdom that is from above is first pure, then peaceable, gentle, and easy to be intreated, full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality, and without hypocrisy.

Just as the wisdom of God is from above [in heaven], Jesus Christ is from above because God, his father, is in heaven.

The next and final figure of speech is called Heterosis {of tense} and its very similar to Polyptoton.

It literally means exchange of accidence which is the exchange of one form of a verb for another.

In John 3:13, it is the exchange of the present in place of the past.

Thus the verse would read: "...even the Son of man which was in heaven", corroborating the first figure of speech which again is refering to Jesus origin from God, his father, who is in heaven.

John 6
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
41 The Jews then murmured at him, because he said, I am the bread which came down from heaven.
42 And they said, Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? how is it then that he saith, I came down from heaven?
43 Jesus therefore answered and said unto them, Murmur not among yourselves.
44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

The exact same principle of John 3:13 whereby Jesus is from heaven because of the divine conception apply to these verses as well.

JESUS CHRIST, THE SON OF GOD

This is also an excerpt from the felony forgery of Exudus 3:14 article:

The entire purpose of the gospel of John is "that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God".

Therefore, no verse in that gospel can be used to confirm the preexistence of Jesus, the deity of Christ or the trinity.

These include:

John 1:1
John 1:14
John 3:13
John 6:40-42
John 8:58
John 10:30
John 10:33
John 20:28

John 20:31
But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

1 John 4:12
No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us.

Why do you suppose that God has told us not once, but twice that no man has seen God?

It's because God knew in his foreknowlege that Satan would promote the trinity long before anybody ever conceived it in order to warn us and protect us from it.

The idea that Jesus was God the son is based upon an entire series of felony forgeries and pagan myths!!

Some preachers even go so far to say that Jesus was the son of God and God the son, which is a total contradiction of terms and represents the contamination from a devil spirit of error, a spirit of whoredoms and an antichrist spirit.

WHAT ARE THE CRITICAL DISTINCTIONS BETWEEN BODY, SOUL AND SPIRIT?

The following article is an excerpt from another article on my website about the true nature of death: [we do not go to heaven when we die!], plus some new material that I have recently added.

"First, we need to lay a foundation of understanding regarding the nature of man. Then we can better understand what happens after death & how we can overcome it [All verses from King James version].

Genesis 2:7
And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.

God formed mankind's body out of the chemical elements of the ground.

Our soul is simply that which makes your body alive and breathing. It what makes you you - your personality, the ability to process information and make decisions.

Luke 12:19
And I will say to my soul, Soul, thou hast much goods laid up for many years; take thine ease, eat, drink, and be merry.

When we talk to ourselves, that is our soul talking to itself.

Leviticus 17:11
For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.

The word "life" is the Hebrew word nephesh [Strong's #5315] which means soul life, an alive and breathing person.

If you go to a funeral or wake, you go up to the front of the room to see THE BODY of the person who recently passed away because their soul life, their breath life, has dissapated into the air upon their last breath.

I Thessalonians 5:23
And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly; and I pray God your whole spirit and soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

This verse makes a clear distinction between body, soul and spirit. They are all 3 unique parts of a christian and correspond to the 3 verbs in the following verse, formed, made and created.

Isaiah 43:7
Even every one that is called by my name: for I have created him for my glory, I have formed him; yea, I have made him.

God formed our bodies out of the dust of the ground
God made our souls
God created our gift of holy spirit"

Thus, Jesus Christ was a complete man of body, soul and spirit.

The gift of holy spirit cannot function without a body and a body cannot function without a soul and you cannot get a soul unless you are born alive.

Therefore, Jesus could not have existed with God in the beginning because none of the 3 elements that he consisted of were even created yet!!!

Another reason why the prenatal preexistence of Jesus is an impossibility.

John 1:14
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

JOHN 1:14 ANALYSIS
JOHN 1:14	ELEMENT	COMMENTARY
And the Word	The word of God	The word is the word of God [Greek word logos] that was in his foreknowledge for eons of time
was made flesh	[BODY] Conception is when the body begins.	God created a perfect sperm with perfectly pure blood that impregnated Mary [the divine conception] so that Jesus Christ could redeem mankind.
and dwelt among us	[BODY & SOUL] Birth is when your existence as a breathing human being of body and soul takes place.	The messiah, the lamb of God, is finally born! Luke 2:52 And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man.
(and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.	[BODY, SOUL & SPIRIT] Jesus received the gift of holy spirit upon him when he was baptized by John	This enabled him to perform many signs, miracles and wonders that glorified God.
(and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.	[BODY, SOUL & SPIRIT] Being born again of God's incorruptible spiritual seed within us is when you become a complete human being of body, soul and holy spirit.	Then we can walk in his steps with grace and power and glorify our heavenly father also.

This is corroborated by an analysis of John 1:13 and Hebrews 2:14 which are extremely accurate in regards to the true nature of Jesus Christ.

John 1:13
~~Which were~~ [who was - referring to Jesus Christ] born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

Hebrews 2:14
Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh AND blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;

The word "partakers" is the Greek word koinóneó [Strong's #2841] and basically means to share fully or completely.

All of us were born of corrupted body and soul [which is in the blood; Leviticus 17:11 & Psalms 54:14 - bloodguiltiness].

Psalm 51:14
Deliver me from bloodguiltiness, O God, thou God of my salvation: and my tongue shall sing aloud of thy righteousness.

Jesus Christ is called the innocent blood in the bible so that he could be that perfect lamb of God, without spot or blemish.

"took part" is the Greek word metechó [Strong's #3348] and means to only take a part of. Jesus shared in the flesh, but not of the corrupted blood like all the rest of us.

WAS JESUS ASSASSINATED AND REINCARNATED TWICE?

To say that Jesus preexisted before his birth is to say he existed before he existed, an absurdity and contradiction of terms.

If Jesus did preexist before his birth, then he had to have been a pure spirit being that was created by God, which would make Jesus a servant of God and not his son!

There are 3 problems with this theory because:

1) there are no scriptures that say Jesus was a spirit being [although he was a man that was resurrected from the dead with a spiritual body].

Therefore this is an unbiblical concept that had to have originated from the world which is managed by Satan as god of this world.

2) this contradicts a verse in Hebrews:

Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

If Jesus Christ was a spirit being with God in the beginning, but became a human being at birth, then his nature changed, which contradicts Hebrews 13:8.

The word "same" in Hebrews 13:8 in this usage means immutable which means unchanging through time; unalterable; ageless.

It's not referring to Jesus from a 5-senses perspective, because he was born as a baby, grew up to be a legal adult at age 30, carried out God's plan of redemption, fulfilled the law, was tortured, crucified and dead in the ground 72 hours, was resurrected and ascended to the right hand of God.

Obviously, that's a lot of changes.

This verse is talking about Jesus Christ as the red thread of the bible, where he has a different identity in every book!

He is the subject of all 56 books of the bible [if you count correctly]

Genesis 3:15
And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

Jesus Christ is the promised seed of the woman [Mary]. A promise that wouldn't be fulfilled for several thousand years, which means that Jesus Christ could not have existed at that time, [regardless of the form he may have been in] - another verse that proves he did not have any prenatal preexistence.

3) Speaking of Hebrews, the idea that Jesus was some kind of angel or other spirit being contradicts yet another verse in Hebrews:

Hebrews 1:4
Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.

Angels and other spirit beings [such as cherubims] were servants of God, but were not as good as an only begotten son that inherited many of the same characteristics and privileges of God himself because Jesus Christ was God's first born son.

Yet another aspect to consider is the fact that the word of God was written into the stars: the meaning and position of the stars, constellations and planets all foretold of the coming messiah, which means he did not exist at that time, in any form. Period.

Download or read E.W. Bullinger's book, Witness of the stars, online.

Genesis 1
11 And God said, Let the earth bring forth grass, the herb yielding seed, and the fruit tree yielding fruit after his kind, whose seed is in itself, upon the earth: and it was so.
21 And God created great whales, and every living creature that moveth, which the waters brought forth abundantly, after their kind, and every winged fowl after his kind: and God saw that it was good.

So if Jesus was a spirit being in the beginning with God, then he would have remained as that being permanently because of the above principle of every plant and animal were made after or according to their kind.

The word "kind" in this context, in the Septuagint [the Greek translation of the old testament] is the Greek word genos which means:

Biological definition: the usual major subdivision of a family or subfamily in the classification of organisms, usually consisting of more than one species.

ORIGIN OF GENUS
1545–55; [Latin - race, stock, kind, gender; cognate with Greek génos.See gens, gender1, kin].

All the angels that God created in the beginning are still the exact same angels today because they don't have corrupted flesh and blood as we do [with the partial exception of 1/3 of the angels that the devil stole from heaven as a consequence of losing the battle in heaven - Revelation 12. Those are now devil spirits under the control of the devil himself, but they are still spirit beings and did not get transformed into plants or animals].

Thus if Jesus was a spirit being in the beginning, but then became Jesus the son of man on earth, this violates several other issues:

1) not only does it contradict all the scriptures above, but it also means that Jesus the spirit being has to die or be assassinated [which is impossible now; the only time a spiritual being dies is in the lake of fire way off into the future and those are reserved for the devil and his devil spirits:
Matthew 25:41
Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:]

Who is going to assassinate the spirit Jesus?

If anybody could do it, it would certainly be the devil:

John 8:44
Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

John 10:10
The thief cometh not, but for to steal, and to kill, and to destroy: I am come that they might have life, and that they might have it more abundantly.

I Peter 5:8
Be sober, be vigilant; because your adversary the devil, as a roaring lion, walketh about, seeking whom he may devour:

As we know, Jesus Christ, by the divine conception, was born a perfect man who carried out God's mission perfectly.

So now we have a very bizarre situation:

We have the spirit Jesus, who was in the beginning with God, then he gets assassinated by the devil [an impossibility with no scriptures to back this crazy idea up], then somehow gets transformed into a perfect man who is later killed and resurrected AGAIN!

So this is either a wild religious story of not once, but twice being killed and resurrected or to put a worldly spin on it, he was twice killed and reincarnated!!

Apparently, the first death and reincarnation went south or sideways [as they say in the movies] and so God had to do it all over again, but finally got it right on the second try...

SERIOUSLY?!

You've got to be blinded by devil spirits of slumber and wacked out by a devil spirit of error to drink this crazy cocktail of religious poison...

So no matter how you slice and dice the preexistence theory of Jesus, there is no astronomical, logical or scriptural basis for it.

SUMMARY

The summary will be coming soon.

DID JESUS PREEXIST BEFORE HE WAS BORN?