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Introduction


  1. Introduction

  2. How do the ancient manuscripts render Matthew 27:46?

  3. The traditional teaching that God forsook Jesus on the cross contradicts God's own wisdom!

  4. Timeline: from John the baptist through Jesus' childhood, God was with them

  5. During Jesus Christ's ministry, God was with him

  6. Forsaken: a revealing word study

  7. Hypocrisy and the accuser

  8. Slander and Calumny: why Matthew 27:46 was mistranslated

  9. 22 Point Summary





INTRODUCTION:

The majority of the teachings on the crucifixion of Jesus contradict the word of God!

Ephesians 6:16
Above all, taking the shield of faith [believing], wherewith ye shall be able to quench all the fiery darts of the wicked.

Here are just a few:

  1. The traditional teaching is that only 2 were crucified with Jesus Christ, but the evidence for 4 crucified is irrefutable!

  2. Jesus died on good Friday afternoon and was resurrected Sunday morning, but the bible says he was in the grave 72 hours!

  3. God forsook Jesus on the cross!

Matthew 15:6 ...Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition.

It is the commandments, doctrines and traditions of men that get us out of fellowship with God.

The way Matthew 27:46 was mistranslated was a spiritual crime against God, his son Jesus Christ, and all who have heard this abominable teaching that God abandoned his perfect and only son on the cross.


If you are having great trouble understanding Matthew 27:46, then heave a sigh of joyous relief!

You will soon have the answer that also fits the characteristics of God's wisdom in James 3 which is peaceful, gentle, easy to be entreated and full of good fruits.

You will be able to verify the truth of God's word yourself from multiple, objective authorities, imparting great confidence, strength, joy and peace.

One of the ways the bible interprets itself is when you have a group of verses on any given subject, all of them must be in harmony and agreement. If a few seem to contradict the vast majority of clear verses, you must research the few problematic verses to see how they fit in with the rest, instead of building an entire erroneous doctrine around the few, which is handling the word of God deceitfully.


There is one other verse that is similar to Matthew 27:46, and that is Mark 15:34, so we will just focus on Matthew 27:46 and how to prove that God never forsook Jesus on the cross.

Matthew 27:46 [KJV]
And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

The idea that God forsook Jesus hanging on the cross has been with us for many centuries, yet it contradicts many other verses in the bible and the very nature of God himself.

HOW DO THE ANCIENT BIBLICAL MANUSCRIPTS RENDER MATTHEW 27:46?

Check out this screenshot of the Lamsa bible, translated from the 5th century Aramaic Peshitta text.

BTW, Aramaic was the native language of Jesus Christ himself!


screenshot of the Lamsa bible, translated from the Aramaic Peshitta text, dating back to the 5th century, which renders Matthew 27:46 like this: Jesus cried out with a loud voice and said, Eli, Eli, lmana shabachthani! which means, My God, my God, for this I was kept!




Let's see how the Africaans Peshitta text translates Matthew 27:46 in the screenshot below:


screenshot of the Africaans Peshitta text, which renders Matthew 27:46 like this: and about the ninth hour, Yeshua cried out with a loud voice saying, My mighty God! My mighty God! Why do you still spare me (continue it)?




Below is a third screenshot that testifies of the precision of God's word by an ancient Peshitta/English interlinear of Matthew 27:46.


screenshot of the Peshitta/English interlinear text, which renders Matthew 27:46 like this: and Jesus said with a loud voice, My God, My God, why have you spared me?



Verse 45: Now from the sixth hour [12 noon], there was darkness over all the land until the ninth hour [3pm]

Verse 46: And about the ninth hour, Jesus cried out with a loud voice and said, "My God, my God, why have you spared me?"
  1. Now all the confusion, contradictions and mental anguish instantly disappear.
  2. Now Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34 fit together perfectly with the rest of the bible.
  3. Now the bible makes sense.

What do the scriptures say about Jesus being forsaken and the wisdom of God?

Nehemiah 9
16 But they and our fathers dealt proudly, and hardened their necks, and hearkened not to thy commandments,
17 And refused to obey, neither were mindful of thy wonders that thou didst among them; but hardened their necks, and in their rebellion appointed a captain to return to their bondage: but thou art a God ready to pardon, gracious and merciful, slow to anger, and of great kindness, and forsookest them not.

18 Yea, when they had made them a molten calf, and said, This is thy God that brought thee up out of Egypt, and had wrought great provocations [Hebrew word neatsah: (Strong's # 5007b) blasphemies & contempt];
19 Yet thou in thy manifold mercies forsookest them not in the wilderness: the pillar of the cloud departed not from them by day, to lead them in the way; neither the pillar of fire by night, to shew them light, and the way wherein they should go.

31 Nevertheless for thy great mercies' sake thou didst not utterly consume them, nor forsake them; for thou art a gracious and merciful God.

God told the Israelites through the prophet Nehemiah not once, not twice, but three times, in only one chapter, that he would NOT forsake them, despite all their idolatry, hardness of heart and all their other sins.

On top of all that, he freely gave them many good things as well.


Ezra 9
6 And said, O my God, I am ashamed and blush to lift up my face to thee, my God: for our iniquities are increased over our head, and our trespass is grown up unto the heavens.
7 Since the days of our fathers have we been in a great trespass unto this day; and for our iniquities have we, our kings, and our priests, been delivered into the hand of the kings of the lands, to the sword, to captivity, and to a spoil, and to confusion of face, as it is this day.

8 And now for a little space, grace hath been shewed from the Lord our God, to leave us a remnant to escape, and to give us a nail in his holy place, that our God may lighten our eyes, and give us a little reviving in our bondage.
9 For we were bondmen; yet our God hath not forsaken us in our bondage, but hath extended mercy unto us in the sight of the kings of Persia, to give us a reviving, to set up the house of our God, and to repair the desolations thereof, and to give us a wall in Judah and in Jerusalem.

In Ezra 9, God did not even forsake the Israelites when they were in bondage after their "iniquities are increased over our head" and their "trespass is grown up unto the heavens", so how could God have forsaken Jesus Christ, the innocent blood, who always did God's will and never sinned?


James 3:17
But the wisdom that is from above is first:

1. pure
2. then peaceable
3. gentle
4. easy to be intreated
5. full of mercy
6. and good fruits
7. without partiality
8. without hypocrisy.

If God forsook his perfect son Jesus, but did not forsake the Israelites who sinned to the max, then God is guilty of partiality of the worst kind, which contradicts his own wisdom that is without partiality [James 3:17].

This also violates sheer logic.


Acts 10:34
Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:

"No respecter of persons" means to treat all people in the same way.

We have a God of justice, fairness and consistent love.

Luke 23:46
And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost [his soul, which is his breath life].

2 critical word definitions: Father & commend!!

Definition of "father":

HELPS Word-studies
[3962 /patḗr ("father") refers to a begetter, originator, progenitor – one in "intimate connection and relationship" (Gesenius).

Thayer's Greek Lexicon
d. the Father of Jesus Christ, as one whom God has united to himself in the closest bond of love and intimacy...

Definition of "commend":

HELPS Word-studies
3908 paratíthēmi (from 3844 /pará, "right close beside" and 5087 /títhēmi, "to place, put") – properly, to set close beside (right next to); (figuratively) entrust; commit to in a very up-close-and-personal way (note the force of the prefix para).

So there you have it: irrefutable proof that God never forsook his son Jesus Christ on the cross.

Yet, there is much, much more in the following sections!

TIMELINE: FROM JOHN THE BAPTIST THROUGH JESUS' CHILDHOOD, GOD WAS WITH THEM

JOHN THE BAPTIST

Luke 1
5 There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea, a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abia: and his wife was of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elisabeth.
6 And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.

Even the parents of John the baptist, before he was born, were righteous and blameless before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord!

7 And they had no child, because that Elisabeth was barren, and they both were now well stricken in years.
8 And it came to pass, that while he executed the priest's office before God in the order of his course,

9 According to the custom of the priest's office, his lot was to burn incense when he went into the temple of the Lord.
10 And the whole multitude of the people were praying without [outside the temple] at the time of incense.

11 And there appeared unto him an angel of the Lord standing on the right side of the altar of incense.
12 And when Zacharias saw him, he was troubled, and fear fell upon him.

13 But the angel said unto him, Fear not, Zacharias: for thy prayer is heard; and thy wife Elisabeth shall bear thee a son, and thou shalt call his name John.
14 And thou shalt have joy and gladness; and many shall rejoice at his birth.

15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, [the gift of holy spirit] even from his mother's womb.

John the baptist is the only person recorded in the bible that had the gift of holy spirit before he was even born!

Even though John was an imperfect human being, God did not forsake him who prepared the way for Jesus Christ, so how could God have forsaken his very own son, who was perfect and always did the will of God??


16 And many of the children of Israel shall he turn to the Lord their God.
17 And he shall go before him in the spirit and power of Elias [Elijah], to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for the Lord.

18 And Zacharias said unto the angel, Whereby shall I know this? for I am an old man, and my wife well stricken in years.
19 And the angel answering said unto him, I am Gabriel, that stand in the presence of God; and am sent to speak unto thee, and to shew thee these glad tidings.

20 And, behold, thou shalt be dumb, and not able to speak, until the day that these things shall be performed, because thou believest not my words, which shall be fulfilled in their season.

21 And the people waited for Zacharias, and marvelled that he tarried so long in the temple.

22 And when he came out, he could not speak unto them: and they perceived that he had seen a vision in the temple: for he beckoned unto them, and remained speechless.
23 And it came to pass, that, as soon as the days of his ministration were accomplished, he departed to his own house.

24 And after those days his wife Elisabeth conceived, and hid herself five months, saying,
25 Thus hath the Lord dealt with me in the days wherein he looked on me, to take away my reproach among men.

59 And it came to pass, that on the eighth day they came to circumcise the child; and they called him Zacharias, after the name of his father.
60 And his mother answered and said, Not so; but he shall be called John.

61 And they said unto her, There is none of thy kindred that is called by this name.
62 And they made signs to his father, how he would have him called.

63 And he asked for a writing table, and wrote, saying, His name is John. And they marvelled all.
64 And his mouth was opened immediately, and his tongue loosed, and he spake, and praised God.

65 And fear [reverence] came on all that dwelt round about them: and all these sayings were noised abroad throughout all the hill country of Judaea.
66 And all they that heard them laid them up in their hearts, saying, What manner of child shall this be! And the hand of the Lord was with him.

Even though he had the gift of holy spirit before he was born, that did not change the fact that he was born with corrupt blood, like all the other people on the planet.

Psalms 51:14
Deliver me from bloodguiltiness, O God, thou God of my salvation: and my tongue shall sing aloud of thy righteousness.



MARY'S PREGNANCY WITH JESUS

Luke 1
26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth,
27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.

28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
29 And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be.

30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.
31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus.

32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father [forefather] David:
33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.

34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

36 And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren.
37 For with God nothing shall be impossible.

38 And Mary said, Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.

In Luke 1:28, the Lord was with Mary throughout her pregnancy with Jesus Christ, so God was with Jesus and did not forsake him.


Jesus Christ had a perfect bloodstream because of his divine conception. He was the only human on the planet that was qualified to be the savior of the world. This is why Jesus Christ was called the innocent blood in Matthew 27:4.


In verse 66 of Luke 1, it says that the hand of the Lord was with John. Therefore, God did not forsake him.

Now we can apply the laws of logic to this situation: since God did not forsake John the Baptist, who was an imperfect man, then how could God have forsaken Jesus Christ, who was a perfect man?

The teaching that God forsook Jesus on the cross even violates the laws of logic!

The bible is a simple, logical book after all.

Romans 12
1 I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that ye present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable unto God, which is your reasonable service.
2 And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.

In verse 1, the word "reasonable" is logical! HELPS Word-studies

3050 logikos (from 3056 /logos, "reason") - properly, logical because divinely reasonable, i.e. "what is logical to God" (logic working through the divine reasoning known through faith).



JESUS' INFANCY THROUGH CHILDHOOD

Luke 2
21 And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, his name was called Jesus, which was so named of the angel before he was conceived in the womb.
22 And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord;

On the eighth day after his birth, Jesus Christ was presented to the Lord, so God had to have been present with him. Therefore, he could not have forsaken him.

Luke 2:40
And the child grew, and waxed [became] strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him.

None of the ancient Greek manuscripts have the words "in spirit", so now the verse properly reads: "And the child grew, and became strong, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him.

The grace of God was upon Jesus Christ, even as a child, so how could God have forsaken him?


Luke 2
49 And he said unto them, How is it that ye sought me? wist [know] ye not that I must be about my Father's business?
50 And they understood not the saying which he spake unto them.

51 And he went down with them, and came to Nazareth, and was subject unto them: but his mother kept all these sayings in her heart.
52 And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature [maturity], and in favour with God and man.

This is the second time in only a few verses that it says Jesus increased in wisdom and grace [the Greek word for grace in verse 40 is the exact same word here, translated favour].

Jesus Christ was carrying out his father's business, even as a child. Don't you think God was helping him? Of course he was. He was in favour with God as well, so God could not have forsaken him.

HELPS Word-studies
Cognate: 5485 xaris (another feminine noun from xar-, "favor, disposed to, inclined, favorable towards, leaning towards to share benefit") - properly, grace.
5485 (xaris) is preeminently used of the Lord's favor - freely extended to give Himself away to people (because He is "always leaning toward them").

5485 /xaris ("grace") answers directly to the Hebrew (OT) term 2580 /Kana ("grace, extension-toward"). Both refer to God freely extending Himself (His favor, grace), reaching (inclining) to people because He is disposed to bless (be near) them.
[5485 (xaris) is sometimes rendered "thanks" but the core-idea is "favor, grace" ("extension towards").]

Luke 2:52 says that Jesus Christ was in favour with God.

By definition, favour means to bless and be near someone, always leaning toward them.

Therefore, God could not have forsaken Jesus since God was near him.

Jesus Christ's ministry

Matthew 3
16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:
17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

Matthew 17:5, Mark 1:11, and II Peter 1:17 also repeat this truth. God has said in his word four times that he is well pleased with his son Jesus Christ, so why would God forsake him? That doesn't make any sense.

Luke 4
31 And came down to Capernaum, a city of Galilee, and taught them on the sabbath days.
32 And they were astonished at his doctrine: for his word was with power.

Jesus Christ's word was with power. Where did that power come from? God.

John 3:2
The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him.

Can God's word be any plainer or more emphatic? God was with Jesus Christ.

John 8
16 And yet if I judge, my judgment is true: for I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent me.
29 And he that sent me is with me: the Father hath not left me alone; for I do always those things that please him.
38 I speak that which I have seen with my Father: and ye do that which ye have seen with your father.

In only 3 verses, we see the following: How can people say that God forsook Jesus!?

Either they haven't been taught the bible accurately or Satan has blinded their eyes.

II Corinthians 4
3 But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost:
4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

5 For we preach not ourselves, but Christ Jesus the Lord; and ourselves your servants for Jesus' sake.
6 For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ.

John 16:32
Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me.


Let's look at the word "not" from a Greek interlinear.
Greek interlinear of john 16:32 [In the second paragraph, in the center, on the top line, click link #3756]

Greek concordance of not
Strong's Concordance
ou, ouk, ouch: not, no
Part of Speech: Particle, Negative
Phonetic Spelling: (oo)
Definition: no, not.

HELPS Word-studies
3756 ou - no ("not"). 3756 (ou) objectively negates a statement, "ruling it out as fact."

Now scroll down the page to Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 3756: ou
1. absolutely and accented,

Strong's Exhaustive Concordance
nay, neither, never, no
Also (before a vowel) ouk (ook), and (before an aspirate) ouch (ookh) a primary word; the absolute negative

So we can see that Thayer's Greek lexicon says that "not" means absolutely not, which is confirmed by Strong's exhaustive concordance further down the page when it says "the absolute negative".

So when Jesus said "yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me" in John 16:32, he actually said "yet I am absolutely not alone, because the Father is with me", according to the critical Greek texts.


John 17:5
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

So how could Jesus Christ have been with the father before the world was made?

I Peter 1:19-20 has the answer.
19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:
20 Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you,

Greek Lexicon of I Peter 1:19-20 [click on link #4267 in the Strong's column]

Greek concordance of foreordained
Strong's Concordance
proginosko: to know beforehand
Part of Speech: Verb
Phonetic Spelling: (prog-in-oce'-ko)
Definition: I know beforehand, foreknow.

HELPS Word-studies
4267 proginosko (from 4253 /pro, "before" and 1097 /ginosko, "to know") - properly, foreknow; used in the NT of "God pre-knowing all choices - and doing so without pre-determining (requiring) them" (G. Archer).
[See also Jer 18:8-10 on the perfect harmony of divine sovereignty and human freedom.]

Jesus Christ was not born until September 11, 3BC, but God in his foreknowledge, knew Jesus Christ would be born then. Jesus Christ had glory even before the world was made because knowledge of his first coming was written in the stars. [Genesis 1:14; Psalms 19]

John 17:21
That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.

Look at what Jesus said in John 17:21 "as thou, Father, art in me". Since God is in Jesus Christ, then how can God forsake him?


Look at verse 22.

22 And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:

So Jesus Christ said "even as we are one". Then how could God have left him alone?

23 I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.

Look at Jesus' words again - "thou in me". How could God have forsaken Jesus when he was IN Jesus?


John 10:30
I and my Father are one.

The word "one" comes from the Greek word hen, which is in the neuter tense and so it means one in purpose, not one in essence, which would require the masculine tense.

Hebrews 13:5 [amplified bible]
Let your character or moral disposition be free from love of money [including greed, avarice, lust, and craving for earthly possessions] and be satisfied with your present [circumstances and with what you have];

for He [God] Himself has said, I will not in any way fail you nor give you up nor leave you without support. [I will] not, [I will] not, [I will] not in any degree leave you helpless nor forsake nor let [you] down, relax My hold on you)! [Assuredly not!]

Let's again apply the laws of logic here: since God will absolutely not forsake us, who are imperfect humans, then how is it possible for God to forsake his only begotten son Jesus Christ, who was a perfect human being and he always did his father's will and God was well pleased with him?

In other words, since God cannot even forsake the lesser [us],
then it is impossible for him to forsake the greater [Jesus Christ].


II Corinthians 5:19
To wit [know], that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

Colossians 2:9
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

John 5:30
I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

Jesus Christ only did his father's will. No wonder God was well pleased with him, so how could God have forsaken him? That doesn't make any sense either. Let's look at this verse again, but from a different angle, in conjunction with another verse.

II Corinthians 2:14
Now thanks be unto God, which always causeth us to triumph in Christ, and maketh manifest the savour of his knowledge by us in every place.

God causes us to triumph in Christ.

John 5:30
I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

Jesus Christ cannot do any of God's will without God's help, yet he did all of God's will. Therefore, God was with him helping him, so how could Jesus Christ have done God's will and how could God make us to triumph in Christ if God had forsaken Jesus Christ? Those are impossibilities.

Jesus Christ was God's only son. He always did his father's will. He was a perfect man, the savior of the world. God was well pleased with him, so when he was hanging on the cross, he was doing God's will to save the world.

Now let's take a more brutal, human approach to the wrong translation in Matthew 27:46. The physical and mental torture that Jesus Christ endured was more than any other person has ever gone through.

Isaiah 53 [Young's literal translation]
2 Yea, he cometh up as a tender plant before Him, And as a root out of a dry land, He hath no form, nor honour, when we observe him, Nor appearance, when we desire him.
3 He is despised, and left of men, a man of pains, and acquainted with sickness, and as one hiding the face from us, He is despised, and we esteemed him not.

4 Surely our sicknesses he hath borne, and our pains - he hath carried them, and we - we have esteemed him plagued, Smitten of God, and afflicted.
5 And he is pierced for our transgressions, Bruised for our iniquities, the chastisement of our peace [is] on him, And by his bruise there is healing to us.

After all the torture and cruelty inflicted upon him, Jesus no longer resembled a human being, yet he always did God's will instead of his own.


Matthew 26:39
And he went a little farther, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt.

So where do you think God was? On a vacation in another galaxy?!?! Not hardly. God was with his perfect and only begotten son. Suppose you had an only child, a son, who was perfect in your eyes. He always did what you wanted. You loved him more than anybody.

But when he was an adult, he got in a terrible car accident that was not even his fault, so he got sent to the hospital. Where would you be? This is an emergency!

You would drop everything you were doing and rush to the hospital! This is what a normal human being would do, who is imperfect, so how could God, who is perfect, and is pure love and light, do any less? God was with Jesus Christ.

Now we are going to look at this issue from a different perspective. The phrase "my father" is used 51 times in the gospels. 48 of those times, Jesus Christ is directly referring to God, his father. Let's look at the definition of father:

John 20:21
Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you.

Greek Lexicon of John 20:21 [In the Strong's column, click on the link for #3962]

Greek concordance of father
Strong's Concordance
pater: a father
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Phonetic Spelling: (pat-ayr')
Definition: father, (Heavenly) Father, ancestor, elder, senior.

HELPS Word-studies
3962 pater - father; one who imparts life and is committed to it; a progenitor, bringing into being to pass on the potential for likeness.

3962 /pater ("father") is used of our heavenly Father. He imparts life, from physical birth to the gift of eternal life through the second birth (regeneration, being born again).

Through ongoing sanctification, the believer more and more resembles their heavenly Father - i.e. each time they receive faith from Him and obey it, which results in their unique glorification.

[3962 /pater ("father") refers to a begetter, originator, progenitor - one in "intimate connection and relationship" (Gesenius). Just as in the NT, the OT never speaks of universal fatherhood of God toward men (see. G. B. Steven's concession, The Theology of the New Testament, p 70; see p 68) (TWOT 1, 6).

Jesus Christ referred to God, his father, whom he had an "intimate connection and relationship" 48 times in the gospels alone, so how could God have forsaken him??


As if being told that 48 times wasn't enough, there are even more verses to back this up.

John 10:17
Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.

Why would God, who loved Jesus Christ so much, forsake him?

John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Greek Lexicon of John 1:18 [go to the Strong's column, # 2859]

Greek concordance of bosom
Strong's Concordance
kolpos: the bosom
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Phonetic Spelling: (kol'-pos)
Definition: (a) sing. and plur: bosom; (sinus) the overhanging fold of the garment used as a pocket, (b) a bay, gulf.

HELPS Word-studies
2859 kolpos - properly, the upper part of the chest where a garment naturally folded to form a "pocket" - called the "bosom," the position synonymous with intimacy (union).

So once again, we see that Jesus Christ had an intimate relationship with God his father and therefore, God could not have forsaken him.

John 14:20
At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.

This is in reference to the day of Pentecost [the spring of 28AD] where it was first possible to be born again of God's spirit. Jesus Christ said "I am in my Father". So how could God have forsaken him?

So we have seen many, many verses where they basically say that God is in Jesus Christ or with him, that Jesus Christ is not alone, and that Jesus Christ had an intimate relationship with his heavenly father, which contradicts the translation of the foreign words in Matthew 27:46, so we know that this absolutely cannot be the original word of God because God's word is perfect and cannot contradict itself.

Psalms 12:6
The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.

John 10:35
If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

One of the ways the word of God interprets itself is that when you have a group of scriptures on the same subject, they cannot contradict themselves. There is a blatant contradiction between the way the translators translated Matthew 27:46 with the many other verses we have looked at.

When you have an apparent contradiction, the problem is in translation or our understanding of the scripture. Sometimes we need new light, new information, to get the right understanding of the verse.

The first indication that the translators didn't know what they were doing was the fact that they left all those foreign words in the verse. They are not Greek, but Estrangelo Aramaic, the actual language that Jesus spoke.

The second indication that something is wrong is that the verse in Matthew 27:46 is translated differently than the one in Mark 15:34

Mark 15:34
And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Matthew 27:46
And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

These verses are similar, but not identical. Why did they translate the same event differently?

There is no such word "lama" in the Aramaic language! However, there is a word lmna, indicating a translation error.

Now we are going to see how this verse reads in one of the oldest Greek manuscripts known.

Codex Sinaiticus - Greek manuscript from the 4th century
Matthew 27
46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying: Elei, Elei, lema sabachtha nei? that is, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Although the wording is a tiny bit different from the King James Bible, the basic message is the same. So even a Greek manuscript from the 4th century is of no help.

The final answer in this case is in the old Aramaic texts. This is why we absolutely MUST do biblical research in order to rightly divide God's word and arrive at a consistent, solid and accurate truth.

Sometimes the Greek texts are more accurate than the Aramaic. Other times other manuscripts have a better or clearer translation. We must keep checking until we find the correct answer.

So we can see there are several non-Greek manuscripts that have a roughly correct translation of this verse. However, we are going to go a step further and see how these Aramaic words are used in the bible to really establish the true meaning of this verse.

The Aramaic word lmna means "for this purpose" or "for this reason". The root word of shabachthani is shbk, also spelled shbq, which means "to spare, to keep, to reserve, to leave". Look at how it is used in this verse.

Romans 11:4
But what saith the answer of God unto him? I have reserved [shbq] to myself seven thousand men, who have not bowed the knee to the image of Baal.

The word "reserved" is the Aramaic root word shbq. This verse is a quotation from I kings.

I Kings 19:18
Yet I have left me seven thousand in Israel, all the knees which have not bowed unto Baal, and every mouth which hath not kissed him.

The root word shbq is translated "remaining" in the KJV in the following 3 verses:

Deuteronomy 3:3
So the Lord our God delivered into our hands Og also, the king of Bashan, and all his people: and we smote him until none was left to him remaining.

Joshua 10:33
Then Horam king of Gezer came up to help Lachish; and Joshua smote him and his people, until he had left him none remaining.

II Kings 10:11
So Jehu slew all that remained of the house of Ahab in Jezreel, and all his great men, and his kinsfolks, and his priests, until he left him none remaining.

Even after all this evidence, there will be a part II in the future. All we have done so far is simply translate this verse correctly and accurately, and seen how it fits with all the other verses on the subject.

What we have not had the time to deal with is Psalms 22, nor the spiritual reason why this verse was translated the way it was.

Psalm 9:10
And they that know thy name will put their trust in thee: for thou, Lord, hast not forsaken them that seek thee.

Nobody sought after God more than Jesus, the son of God. Therefore, God could not ever forsake Jesus. God does not even forsake us, imperfect people who seek after him, so how much more would God be with Jesus always?

Matthew 12:30
He that is not with me is against me; and he that gathereth not with me scattereth abroad.

Luke 11:23
He that is not with me is against me: and he that gathereth not with me scattereth.

If God forsook Jesus on the cross, then he was not with him. According to God's own word in Matthew 12 & Luke 11, since God wasn't with him, he was against him.

That contradicts the entire bible and the nature of God himself. Therefore, God could not have forsaken Jesus on the cross. God was with Jesus Christ while he was hanging on the cross.

Matthew 16:27
For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.

In the future, Jesus Christ will be coming with God's angels in the glory of his father. If God had already forsaken him while he was on the cross, then Jesus couldn't come in the glory of the father at all.

Some people say that God only forsook Jesus when he was hanging on the cross, but was with him during all the other parts of his life. Oh really? What bible verse says that?!?!

Matthew 19:26
But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.

Mark 10:27
And Jesus looking upon them saith, With men it is impossible, but not with God: for with God all things are possible.

Once again, God was with Jesus so that he could do all the miraculous things he did.

FORSAKEN: A REVEALING WORD STUDY

Next, we are going to handle a word study for the Greek word for "forsake" from Matthew 27:46.

Greek lexicon of Matthew 27:46 At the bottom of the chart, in the Strong's column, go to link #1459

Greek concordance of forsaken
Strong's Concordance
egkataleipo: to leave behind, i.e. (in a good sense) let remain over or (in a bad sense) desert
Part of Speech: Verb
Phonetic Spelling: (eng-kat-al-i'-po)
Definition: I leave in the lurch, abandon (one who is in straits), desert.

HELPS Word-studies
1459 egkataleipo (from 1722 /en, "in"; 2596 /kata, "down"; and 3007 /leipo, "to leave") - properly, left in a condition of lack ("without"); hence, to feel forsaken (helpless), like left in dire circumstances.

The Greek text of Matthew 27:46 was translated from older Greek texts which ultimately came from the Aramaic text. However, even in the Greek, we can see hints of truth in the two-fold nature of the definition.

Egkataleipo can mean to leave behind, to let remain. If you have 10 apples and take away 5, then you still have 5 left or 5 remaining. They were not abandoned or forsaken because they are still remaining with you.

God kept, or allowed to remain, his son Jesus Christ on the cross for the purpose of our redemption and salvation. This word egkataleipo is used 10 times in the bible. The first two usages are in Matthew & Mark where it is wrongly used in reference to God forsaking Jesus Christ. The other 8 usages are most enlightening.

Acts 2
22 Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:
23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

24 Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it.
25 For David speaketh concerning him, I foresaw the Lord always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved:

26 Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad; moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope:
27 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

In verse 27, the English word "hell" is the Greek word hades, which refers to the grave, or more accurately, gravedom, which is the continuing state of the dead. "Suffer" is simply King James old English and means "allow".

Definition of hades
Easton's 1897 Bible Dictionary[bottom of page]
Hades definition
That which is out of sight, a Greek word used to denote the state or place of the dead. All the dead alike go into this place. To be buried, to go down to the grave, to descend into hades, are equivalent expressions.

In the LXX. this word is the usual rendering of the Hebrew sheol, the common receptacle of the departed (Gen. 42:38; Ps. 139:8; Hos. 13:14; Isa. 14:9). This term is of comparatively rare occurrence in the Greek New Testament.

Our Lord speaks of Capernaum as being "brought down to hell" (hades), i.e., simply to the lowest debasement, (Matt. 11:23). It is contemplated as a kind of kingdom which could never overturn the foundation of Christ's kingdom (16:18), i.e., Christ's church can never die. In Luke 16:23 it is most distinctly associated with the doom and misery of the lost.

In Acts 2:27-31 Peter quotes the LXX. version of Ps. 16:8-11, plainly for the purpose of proving our Lord's resurrection from the dead. David was left in the place of the dead, and his body saw corruption. Not so with Christ. According to ancient prophecy (Ps. 30:3) he was recalled to life.

Continuing with our word study of egkataleipo, the word "leave" is the third usage of the Greek word egkataleipo.

Acts 2:27 "thou wilt NOT leave my soul in the grave". We know that is true because God resurrected Jesus Christ from the dead. So God did not forsake Jesus Christ, even in the grave.


Acts 2
29 Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day.
30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;

31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell [Greek word hades, the grave], neither his flesh did see corruption.
32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.

The next usage of egkataleipo is in Acts 2:31, translated "left". This is simply repeating the same truth just a few verses before, so God's word is telling us TWICE that he did not leave Jesus Christ in the grave, but raised him from the dead, as verse 32 tells us, including the fact that there were many witnesses to that as well.

Romans 9:29
And as Esaias said before, Except the Lord of Sabaoth had left us a seed, we had been as Sodoma, and been made like unto Gomorrha.

Egkataleipo is translated "left" here also. As you can see, it is used in the sense of given, or left some remaining according to the definition. Seed is referring to progeny, descendents.

II Corinthians 4:9
Persecuted, but not forsaken; cast down, but not destroyed;

Since the apostle Paul was "Persecuted, but NOT forsaken", despite his mistakes, then how could God forsake his only begotten son who was perfect and always pleased the father?


Paul was the writer, but not the author of the book to the Corinthians. Since God did not forsake the apostle Paul, who, before he got born again, persecuted and killed Christians, [God's own children], and still made the major mistake of going to Jerusalem after he was told not to multiple times, after he was born again, then how could God forsake Jesus Christ, who was perfect and lived a perfect life that was always pleasing to God?

The idea that God forsook Jesus is impossible based on logic alone, not to mention dozens of scriptures and the true nature of God.

II Timothy 4
10 For Demas hath forsaken me, having loved this present world, and is departed unto Thessalonica; Crescens to Galatia, Titus unto Dalmatia.
11 Only Luke is with me. Take Mark, and bring him with thee: for he is profitable to me for the ministry.

Egkataleipo is translated "forsaken" in verse 10. It does mean forsake, but it is used in the sense of one person forsaking or leaving another person. It is never used in the sense of God leaving or forsaking any person for any reason at any time.

II Timothy 4
16 At my first answer no man stood with me, but all men forsook me: I pray God that it may not be laid to their charge.
17 Notwithstanding the Lord stood with me, and strengthened me; that by me the preaching might be fully known, and that all the Gentiles might hear: and I was delivered out of the mouth of the lion.

18 And the Lord shall deliver me from every evil work, and will preserve me unto his heavenly kingdom: to whom be glory for ever and ever. Amen.

Egkataleipo is translated "forsook" in verse 16. Again, it is used in the sense of a person leaving or forsaking another person, but never of God leaving or forsaking any person.

Look at verse 17 - "Notwithstanding the Lord stood with me, and strengthened me". Since he did that for the Apostle Paul, he had to have done that for his only begotten son Jesus Christ in whom he was well pleased.


Hebrews 10:25
Not forsaking the assembling of ourselves together, as the manner of some is; but exhorting one another: and so much the more, as ye see the day approaching.

Egkataleipo is translated "forsaking" in verse 25. So in this usage, it's about not leaving or forsaking of church members getting together.

Hebrews 13
5 Let your conversation be without covetousness; and be content with such things as ye have: for he hath said, I will never leave thee, nor forsake thee.
6 So that we may boldly say, The Lord is my helper, and I will not fear what man shall do unto me.

Egkataleipo is translated "forsake" in verse 5. God will not leave us or forsake us. Furthermore, in verse 6, God is our helper. The following verses were obtained by notes in the center margin of my bible right next to Hebrews 13:5.

Genesis 28
13 And, behold, the Lord stood above it, and said, I am the Lord God of Abraham thy father, and the God of Isaac: the land whereon thou liest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed;
14 And thy seed shall be as the dust of the earth, and thou shalt spread abroad to the west, and to the east, and to the north, and to the south: and in thee and in thy seed shall all the families of the earth be blessed.
15 And, behold, I am with thee, and will keep thee in all places whither thou goest, and will bring thee again into this land; for I will not leave thee, until I have done that which I have spoken to thee of.

Psalms 37
23 The steps of a good man are ordered by the Lord: and he delighteth in his way.
24 Though he fall, he shall not be utterly cast down: for the Lord upholdeth him with his hand.

25 I have been young, and now am old; yet have I not seen the righteous forsaken, nor his seed begging bread.
26 He is ever merciful, and lendeth; and his seed is blessed.

Isaiah 41
9 Thou whom I have taken from the ends of the earth, and called thee from the chief men thereof, and said unto thee, Thou art my servant; I have chosen thee, and not cast thee away.
10 Fear thou not; for I am with thee: be not dismayed; for I am thy God: I will strengthen thee; yea, I will help thee; yea, I will uphold thee with the right hand of my righteousness.

So even a thorough word study on the word "forsake" [Greek word Egkataleipo] does not prove in any way, shape or form the devilish idea that God forsook Jesus at any time, much less on the cross.


On the contrary, we have seen that this word forsake is NEVER used in the sense of God leaving or forsaking any person at any time for any reason [except in the 2 mistranslated verses, which we have already covered in great detail and depth]. It is only used in the sense of one human being leaving another.

HYPOCRISY AND THE ACCUSER

Matthew 4:11
Then the devil leaveth him, and, behold, angels came and ministered unto him.

Greek lexicon of Matthew 4:11 go to the link in the strong's column #863.

Greek concordance of leaveth
Strong's Concordance
aphiemi: to send away, leave alone, permit
Part of Speech: Verb
Phonetic Spelling: (af-ee'-ay-mee)
Definition: (a) I send away, (b) I let go, release, permit to depart, (c) I remit, forgive, (d) I permit, suffer.

HELPS Word-studies
863 aphiemi (from 575 /apo, "away from" and hiemi, "send") - properly, send away; release (discharge).

So the devil left Jesus in the wilderness after an unsuccessful onslaught of attacks.
Luke 4
12 And Jesus answering said unto him, It is said, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.
13 And when the devil had ended all the temptation, he departed from him for a season.

Greek lexicon of departed Go to # 868 in the strong's column.

Greek concordance of departed
Strong's Concordance
aphistemi: to lead away, to depart from
Part of Speech: Verb
Phonetic Spelling: (af-is'-tay-mee)
Definition: I make to stand away, draw away, repel, take up a position away from, withdraw from, leave, abstain from.

Here, this Greek word is similar to the other one in Matthew 4:11.
The devil departed from Jesus in the wilderness in Luke 4. Do you see what's going on here?

Two different bible verses in the gospels confirm that the devil left, or departed away from Jesus, forsaking him, yet it was the devil himself who falsely accused God of forsaking Jesus by way of the bad translation in Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34!

In other words, the devil falsely accused God of what the devil was guilty of himself. This makes him a hypocrite. It's no wonder then that the devil's own children are also called hypocrites 7 times by Jesus Christ himself.


search results for hypocrites

The word "hypocrites" occurs 20 times in the bible, with 17 [85%] in the gospels. The other usages are two in the book of Job and once in Isaiah.

The phrase "Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites!" occurs seven times in the bible, all of them being in the gospel of Matthew and all of them are in reference to children of the devil. Like father, like son.

The idea that God forsook Jesus Christ on the cross [or any other time for that matter], is a bold-faced lie. It contradicts dozens of scriptures.

The mistranslation of Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34 where Jesus Christ says that God forsook him turns Jesus into a false accuser also. No surprise there either, for one of the names of the devil is the accuser.

Revelation 12
9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.
10 And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of his Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night.

Greek lexicon of Revelation 12:10 Go to Strong's #2725b, then go to the root word kategoros, which is #2725.

Greek concordance of accuser
Strong's Concordance #2725
kategoros: a prosecutor, accuser
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Phonetic Spelling: (kat-ay'-gor-os)
Definition: an accuser, prosecutor.

Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 2725: kategoros
kategoros, kategoron, (kategoros (which see ad at the end)), an accuser: John 8:10; Acts 23:30, 35; Acts 24:8 (R); ; Revelation 12:10 R Tr. ((From Sophocles and Herodotus down.))

STRONGS NT 2725: kategoros kategoros, o, an accuser: Revelation 12:10 G L T WH. It is a form unknown to Greek writers, a literal transcription of the Hebrew , a name given to the devil by the rabbis; cf. Buxtorf, Lex. Chaldean talm. et rahb., p. 2009 (p. 997, Fischer edition); (Schottgen, Horae Hebrew i., p. 1121f; cf. Buttmann, 25 (22)).

So the job of the devil, as the accuser, the world's spiritual prosecutor, is to find you guilty! He has falsely accused God, his son Jesus Christ, and you, God's son, of doing or even being evil.

This is why the bad translation of Matthew 27:46 happened the way it did, beause the devil is the god of this world and his job is to falsely accuse anybody on God's side.

Contrast this with Jesus Christ!!
I John 2
1 My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:
2And he is the propitiation [payment]for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Greek lexicon of I John 2:1 Now go to the strong's column to #3875

Greek concordance of advocate
Strong's Concordance #3875
parakletos: called to one's aid
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Phonetic Spelling: (par-ak'-lay-tos)
Definition: (a) an advocate, intercessor, (b) a consoler, comforter, helper, (c) Paraclete.

HELPS Word-studies
3875 parakletos (from 3844 /para, "from close-beside" and 2564 /kaleo, "make a call") - properly, a legal advocate who makes the right judgment-call because close enough to the situation.

3875 /parakletos ("advocate, advisor-helper") is the regular term in NT times of an attorney (lawyer) - i.e. someone giving evidence that stands up in court.

SLANDER AND CALUMNY: WHY MATTHEW 27:46 & PSALMS 22:1 WERE MISTRANSLATED

Matthew 4:11
Then the devil leaveth him, and, behold, angels came and ministered unto him.

Greek lexicon of Matthew 4:11 Now go to Strong's #1228

Greek concordance of devil
Strong's Concordance #1228
diabolos: slanderous, accusing falsely
Part of Speech: Adjective
Phonetic Spelling: (dee-ab'-ol-os)
Definition: (adj. used often as a noun), slanderous; with the article: the Slanderer (par excellence), the Devil.

HELPS Word-studies
1228 diabolos (from 1225 /diaballo, "to slander, accuse, defame") - properly, a slanderer; a false accuser; unjustly criticizing to hurt (malign) and condemn to sever a relationship.

[1228 (diabolos) is the root of the English word, "Devil" (see also Webster's Dictionary).
1228 (diabolos) in secular Greek means "backbiter," i.e. an accuser, calumniator (slanderer). 1228 (diabolos) is literally someone who "casts through," i.e. making charges that bring down (destroy). Satan is used by God in this plan - as a predictable wind-up toy, playing out his evil nature.]

Definition of slander
slan der [slan-der]
noun
1. defamation; calumny: rumors full of slander.
2. a malicious, false, and defamatory statement or report: a slander against his good name.

3. Law. defamation by oral utterance rather than by writing, pictures, etc.
verb (used with object)
4. to utter slander against; defame.
verb (used without object)
5. to utter or circulate slander.

Origin:
1250-1300; (noun) Middle English s ( c ) laundre - Anglo-French esclaundre, Old French esclandre, alteration of escandle - Late Latin scandalum cause of offense, snare (see scandal); (v.) Middle English s ( c ) laundren - to cause to lapse morally, bring to disgrace, discredit, defame - Old French esclandrer, derivative of esclandre

Definition of calumny
cal um ny [kal-uhm-nee]
noun, plural cal um nies.
1. a false and malicious statement designed to injure the reputation of someone or something: The speech was considered a calumny of the administration.
2. the act of uttering calumnies; slander; defamation.

Origin:
1400-50; late Middle English - Latin calumnia, equivalent to calumn-, perhaps originally a middle participle of calvi to deceive + -ia -y3 )
Synonyms
2. libel, vilification, calumniation, derogation.


THE SPIRITUAL REASON WHY MATTHEW 27:46 & MARK 15:34 WERE MISTRANSLATED IS BECAUSE THE DEVIL, AS THE ACCUSER, THE CALUMNIATOR, THE HYPOCRITE AND THE SLANDERER, IS WORKING OVERTIME TO DESTROY THE REPUTATION OF GOD, HIS SON JESUS CHRIST, AND GOD'S WORD.



The devil's objective is to corrupt the bible.

His goal is to:
  1. poison the minds of Christians and the rest of the world against God and Jesus Christ [sowing discord between God & Jesus Christ against the world]
  2. to cause confusion
  3. to damage the reputation of God
  4. To damage the reputation of God's son Jesus Christ
  5. hinder evangelism - who wants or admires a God who forsakes his own, and only, and perfect son?!?!
  6. Introduce doubt into the minds of believers
  7. To damage the integrity and accuracy of God's word
Do you see how much damage this can cause? No matter how subtle or blatant it is, it accomplishes what the devil wants. Remember, he is God's arch-enemy and the God of this world.

In John 8, Jesus Christ is confronting some religious leaders who were born of the seed of the devil.

John 8
44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
45 And because I tell you the truth, ye believe me not.

Did you see that? The devil is not only a liar, but he is the father of lies! The word father is used figuratively to indicate the originator of lies. Lies did not exist until the devil came into being.

We've seen that the mistranslation of Matthew 27:46 & Mark 15:34 are lies about God and Jesus Christ both. So we have the devil falsely accusing God of both forsaking Jesus Christ, but also of being a liar, both of which are things the devil is guilty of himself, which makes him a hypocrite also.

How do 12 modern bible versions render Matthew 27:46?

Below are 12 randomly selected modern bible versions and all of them basically say the same thing: that God abandoned his own son Jesus on the cross.
  1. Darby Translation (DARBY)

  2. J.B. Phillips New Testament (PHILLIPS)

  3. Jubilee Bible 2000 (JUB)

  4. King James Version (KJV)

  5. Lexham English Bible (LEB)

  6. New International Version (NIV)

  7. New Life Version (NLV)

  8. New Living Translation (NLT)

  9. Orthodox Jewish Bible (OJB)

  10. Revised Standard Version Catholic Edition (RSVCE)

  11. The Message (MSG)

  12. Wycliffe Bible (WYC)

If you read all these different versions, you will see a common theme: 10 of the 12 [83%] have foreign words in this verse, and all 12 [100%] say something about God forsaking or abandoning Jesus Christ while he was hanging on the cross.

SUMMARY

  1. 10 of 12 [83%] randomly selected bible versions have foreign words in this verse, and all 12 [100%] say something about God forsaking or abandoning Jesus Christ while he was hanging on the cross

  2. In the time of Ezra the prophet, the Israelites married the unbelievers in the other idolatrous nations and committed their sins and abominations, yet Ezra 9:9 says "yet our God hath not forsaken us in our bondage". Therefore, God could not have forsaken Jesus Christ, who was sinless and always did the father's will

  3. If God forsook Jesus on the cross, then he was not with him. According to God's own word in Matthew 12 & Luke 11, since God wasn't with him, he was against him. That contradicts the entire bible and the nature of God himself

  4. In verse 28 of Luke, chapter 1, the Lord was with Mary, even throughout her pregnancy with Jesus Christ, so God was with Jesus as well. Therefore, God did not forsake him, which contradicts the translator's rendering of the foreign words in Matthew 27:46

  5. In verse 66 of Luke, chapter one, it says that the hand of the Lord was with John the baptist. Therefore, God did not forsake him. Now we can apply the laws of logic to this situation: since God did not forsake John the Baptist, who was an imperfect man, then how could God have forsaken Jesus Christ, who was a perfect man?

  6. In Luke, chapter 2, the baby Jesus was presented to the Lord, so the Lord was with him then, just as when God was with him as a fetus in Mary's womb. As the holy child grew, the grace of God was upon him and he grew in favour with God. That means that God was near him and God blessed him

  7. In Luke 23 & Matthew 27, Jesus said while hanging on the cross, "Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost". If God had forsaken him already, then why was he talking to God? Because God was with him on the cross

  8. In the book of John, Jesus said that God was with him 5 times and that God has not left him alone twice. The definition of the word "not" is absolutely not

  9. Between the books of John, Corinthians and Colossians, it says the father was in Jesus Christ 4 times, they were one 3 times, and Jesus Christ was in the father once

  10. In Hebrews 13, it says God will not leave us or forsake us, even though we are imperfect. Therefore, God could not have forsaken his son Jesus Christ, who was perfect

  11. In John 5:30, Jesus Christ said he couldn't do anything of himself. He had to have God's help. Therefore, God was with him

  12. If your only child and son was dying, you, as an imperfect human being, would not abandon him or forsake him, then how could God, who is perfect, have abandoned his only son? He couldn't and didn't

  13. One of the ways that the bible interprets itself is that all the verses on any given subject cannot contradict themselves, yet the translation of the foreign words in Matthew 27:46 contradicts many, many different verses and the laws of logic. Therefore, it cannot be the true, original word of God

  14. Jesus Christ called God "my father" 48 times in the gospels alone. The word "father" means "one in "intimate connection and relationship"". Therefore, God could not have forsaken him at any time

  15. God has said in his word four times that he is well pleased with his son Jesus Christ, so why would God forsake him? God was with Jesus Christ

  16. In the gospel of John, it says that God loved Jesus Christ and that they had a close, intimate relationship together, so God did not forsake Jesus Christ

  17. The foreign words left in this verse are Aramaic, the language that Jesus spoke himself. They were left in this verse because the translators were not sure of their meaning

  18. The true meaning of the Aramaic words "Eli, Eli, lmana shabachthani!" is "My God, my God, for this [purpose] I was kept!" This can be verified from at least 3 different ancient Aramaic Peshitta manuscripts

  19. Jesus Christ always did his father's will, so when he was hanging on the cross, he was doing his father's will also. Therefore, God could not have forsaken him at any time, in any place, in any situation, for any reason

  20. The root word of shabachthani is shbq, which is used several times in the bible and is translated "remaining" and "reserved". Its usage is never a situation where abandonment was referred to.

  21. There is no Aramaic word "lama", but there is a word "lmana", which means for this purpose or reason

  22. The mistranslation of Matthew 27:46 contradicts many, many scriptures, the laws of logic and the nature of God himself

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